Post by ResLight on Apr 20, 2015 18:33:23 GMT -5
It is being claimed regarding 1 Thessalonians 3:11, that the Greek refers to God and Father Himself, and our Lord Jesus Christ, may HE direct our way unto you. Thus, the claim is that Paul uses singular for two Persons ! The Greek word ΚΑΤΕΥΘΥΝΑΙ (=may HE direct) is Optative Active 3rd Person Singular, thus: THE TWO PERSONS IS ONE GOD. However, is this what Paul said?
1 Thessalonians 3:11
And our God and Father Himself, and our Lord Jesus Christ, direct our way unto you. -- Young's Literal.
Now may, our God and Father himself and our Lord Jesus, make straight our way unto you: - Rotherham's Emphasized Bible translation.
"God" is presented as being on being one person, not three persons, and "God" is distinguished from "our Lord Jesus Christ". The word "lord" applied to Jesus signifies the one whom the only true Supreme Being anointed and made "lord". The word "Christ" signifies the one who has been anointed and sent by the Lord Jehovah, and thus the default reasoning is that the one anointed is not He who anointed him. — Psalm 2:26; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24; John 10:29; 17:1,3; Acts 2:23,36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.
The usage of a singular verb does not give us cause to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul wrote in 1 Thessalonians 3:11 that there is a triune God, to further imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul said that Paul meant by "God" only one person* of that triune God, and then additionally to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul said that he meant that "Jesus Christ" is another person of the already imagined and assumed triune God. Paul could have been referring to either Jesus or the God and Father of Jesus singularly, or he could have been referring to Father and Son as a single unit without any thought of Jesus as being a person of the Supreme Being. Meyer states: "inasmuch as His will is not different from the will of God, but identical with it, the verb in the singular is suitable." (Meyer's New Testament Commentary) Indeed, Paul did not present Jesus as being "God", but he distinguished "God" from Jesus. Whatever Paul may have had in mind in using a singular verb, it certainly offers no reason for all that has to be imagined and assumed in order to read "triune God" into what he stated.
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*Some really get to the imagitative spirit by claiming that "God" refers to the alleged "Holy Spirit" third person of God, and that "Father" refers to the alleged "first person" of God. The Pulpit Commentary states regarding this view: "the words in the original will not bear this sense: 'God himself and our Father' is the same Divine Person."
1 Thessalonians 3:11
And our God and Father Himself, and our Lord Jesus Christ, direct our way unto you. -- Young's Literal.
Now may, our God and Father himself and our Lord Jesus, make straight our way unto you: - Rotherham's Emphasized Bible translation.
"God" is presented as being on being one person, not three persons, and "God" is distinguished from "our Lord Jesus Christ". The word "lord" applied to Jesus signifies the one whom the only true Supreme Being anointed and made "lord". The word "Christ" signifies the one who has been anointed and sent by the Lord Jehovah, and thus the default reasoning is that the one anointed is not He who anointed him. — Psalm 2:26; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24; John 10:29; 17:1,3; Acts 2:23,36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.
The usage of a singular verb does not give us cause to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul wrote in 1 Thessalonians 3:11 that there is a triune God, to further imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul said that Paul meant by "God" only one person* of that triune God, and then additionally to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Paul said that he meant that "Jesus Christ" is another person of the already imagined and assumed triune God. Paul could have been referring to either Jesus or the God and Father of Jesus singularly, or he could have been referring to Father and Son as a single unit without any thought of Jesus as being a person of the Supreme Being. Meyer states: "inasmuch as His will is not different from the will of God, but identical with it, the verb in the singular is suitable." (Meyer's New Testament Commentary) Indeed, Paul did not present Jesus as being "God", but he distinguished "God" from Jesus. Whatever Paul may have had in mind in using a singular verb, it certainly offers no reason for all that has to be imagined and assumed in order to read "triune God" into what he stated.
=====
*Some really get to the imagitative spirit by claiming that "God" refers to the alleged "Holy Spirit" third person of God, and that "Father" refers to the alleged "first person" of God. The Pulpit Commentary states regarding this view: "the words in the original will not bear this sense: 'God himself and our Father' is the same Divine Person."
