Post by ResLight on Feb 26, 2015 19:15:11 GMT -5
The following is briefly in response to:
Is the Trinity Three Different Gods?
answersingenesis.org/who-is-god/the-trinity/is-the-trinity-three-different-gods/
Many trinitarians seem to get very upset when a non-trinitarian speaks of the trinity as being three gods in one god, for their claim is that there are not three Gods, but rather one God who is three persons, or three persons all of whom are the one God. This posting presents brief responses, especially as related to scriptures presented.
Despite whatever declarations of men might present as being trinity, the truth is that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is not once presented as being more than one person, nor is the concept of a triune God ever presented in any scripture of the Bible.
Deuteronomy 6:4,5 presents Jehovah as one, not as three. Paul tells us that this one God is the Father (1 Corinthians 8:6), and Jesus identified his God and Father as being this "one true God." -- Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3.
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/deuteronomy.html#deu6-4
2 Corinthians 13:14 does not present God as being three persons, but as only one person, the Father.
sonofyah.wordpress.com/2010/10/09/2-cor13-14/
Matthew 28:18,20, even as it appears in the traditional text, does not present any concept of a triune God. Jesus identified the Father spoken of there as his God in Matthew 27:46, and as the only true God (John 17:1,3) in harmony with Paul's declaration. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=265
In Matthew 3:16,17, the word "God" refers, not to three persons, but only person, that is, the God and Father of Jesus.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=2651
1 Corinthians 15:24 identifies only one person as being the Supreme Being.
Romans 1:27 does not refer to Jesus as "God", but refers only to the Father as being the Supreme Being. Of course, from the Hebraic standpoint, even if Paul had referred to Jesus by use a form of Greek word transliterated as THEOS, this would not necessarily have meant that we would need to imagine that Paul had meant that Jesus is the Supreme Being, and then to imagine that Paul meant that Jesus is a person of the Supreme Being.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=19
John 10:30 does not present God as being more than one person, but Jesus declares his unity with his Father, whom he said was "the only true God" (John 17:1,3), and he later prayed that all of his followers would have this same unity with himself and with the only true God. -- John 17:1,3,11,20-23.
jesus-rlbible.com/?page_id=5322
In Jesus' words recorded in Matthew 4:7, Jesus quotes the Law in answer to Satan. In doing so, Jesus was not saying that he -- Jesus -- was Jehovah, and that Satan was under the Law Covenant, and thus that Satan should not tempt Jehovah. Jesus wasnot declaring himself to Satan's God. Jesus was not referring to himself as being Jehovah in Matthew 4:7, but rather he was saying that he -- Jesus -- was not to tempt Jehovah, his God. -- Micah 5:4.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=495
Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23 designates a titular name given to the Messiah, Immanuel, which means "God is with us." Such a name does not designate the bearer as being "God", but it does indicate that, as prophesied, through the Messiah, God is with His people. We find nothing in this name, however, that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person.
jesus-rlbible.com/?page_id=4866
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=2827
In Hebrews 1:8, if the Greek word transliterated as THEOS is applied to Jesus (not all translators rendered to that way), it would not be in the sense of being the Supreme Being, the source of all might, power, but rather in the sense of mighty one, similar to the way that the angels are mighty ones. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) Jesus, however, is distinguished from the Supreme Being throughout Hebrews chapter 1; indeed, the next verse (Hebrews 1:9) shows that Jesus is not the Supreme Being, for the Supreme Being does not have another Supreme Being which is greater than the Supreme Being. The default reasoning should be that Jesus is not the Supreme Being.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=367
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=1895
Jehovah's Holy Spirit (Isaiah 61:1) is represented in many different ways and fulfills many different functions. God’s holy spirit is likened to God’s finger (as the power of God). (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) As the instrument of the revealing of truth, the holy spirit is likened to God’s “mouth”. (Deuteronomy 8:3; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) Are we to think of God’s finger or his mouth as a separate and distinct person of God (using trinitarian terminology)? Is your finger, or your mouth, a separate and distinct person of yourself?
In Acts 5:3,4, God's Holy Spirit is not presented as being God, but is contrasted with "men", for it was to "men" that Ananias directly lied. At any rate, God's Holy Spirit is integral to God just as your finger or your mouth is integral to you. If your mouth speaks, it is actually you that speaks; if your finger performs some work, it is actually you that has performed the work.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=952
John 14:26 and John 15:26 refer to the Holy Spirit in the masculine, since the Greek word for Comforter (some translations render it as Counselor, or Helper) is masculine. Nevertheless, as shown in Acts 2:33, Jesus receives the Holy Spirit from his Father (the only true God -- John 17:1,3).
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=980
In Deuteronomy 33:27, not all translations render the Hebrew word transliterated as qedem (Strong's #6924) as "eternal"; some render it as is "of old" or something similar. Obviously, however, the only true God (John 17:1,3) has existed from eternity past.
In Micah 5:2, many translations make it appear to be saying that the promised Messiah has existed for all eternity past. However, as best as I can determine, Micah 5:2 is ONLY place that any translation renders the Hebrew phrase in question as "from everlasting". Micah 5:2 is only place I know of that this phrase is rendered in any translation with some form of "everlasting". Indeed, the same phase occurs again in Micah 7:14, but, as far as I can determine, no translator would think of rendering it a "from everlasting". Indeed, no translation that I know of renders this same phrase as "from everlasting" in Psalm 77:5; Isaiah 51:9; 63:9,11; or Amos 9:11. And yet many translators make an exception of Micah 5:2. Why? Could it be that they do so because of their belief that Jesus was uncreated, and that he always existed? Indeed, this would seem to be reason. This, would, in effect, mean circular reasoning is applied when using Micah 5:2, as it reads in some translations, in an effort to prove that Jesus was "from everlasting". However, in context (Micah 5:4), the promised Messiah shown to not be Jehovah, but Jehovah is presented as being the God of the Messiah.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=923
Hebrews 9:14 speaks of the eternal spirit; of course, God's Holy Spirit is just as eternal as God himself is.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=1441
Jeremiah 10:10-12 does not say anything about a triune God, but it does show that Jehovah, the only true God [Supreme Being], the God and Father of Jesus, is distinct from the idol gods of the nations.
What is lacking in all these scriptures is any thought of a triune God. The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is always presented as one person or individual. He is never presented as being a more than one person.
Also posted at:
hhttps://rl-defending.blogspot.com/2017/05/3gods.html
On this site you are able to print the above. Also you are table to translate it into many other languages.
Is the Trinity Three Different Gods?
answersingenesis.org/who-is-god/the-trinity/is-the-trinity-three-different-gods/
Many trinitarians seem to get very upset when a non-trinitarian speaks of the trinity as being three gods in one god, for their claim is that there are not three Gods, but rather one God who is three persons, or three persons all of whom are the one God. This posting presents brief responses, especially as related to scriptures presented.
Despite whatever declarations of men might present as being trinity, the truth is that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is not once presented as being more than one person, nor is the concept of a triune God ever presented in any scripture of the Bible.
Deuteronomy 6:4,5 presents Jehovah as one, not as three. Paul tells us that this one God is the Father (1 Corinthians 8:6), and Jesus identified his God and Father as being this "one true God." -- Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3.
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/deuteronomy.html#deu6-4
2 Corinthians 13:14 does not present God as being three persons, but as only one person, the Father.
sonofyah.wordpress.com/2010/10/09/2-cor13-14/
Matthew 28:18,20, even as it appears in the traditional text, does not present any concept of a triune God. Jesus identified the Father spoken of there as his God in Matthew 27:46, and as the only true God (John 17:1,3) in harmony with Paul's declaration. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=265
In Matthew 3:16,17, the word "God" refers, not to three persons, but only person, that is, the God and Father of Jesus.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=2651
1 Corinthians 15:24 identifies only one person as being the Supreme Being.
Romans 1:27 does not refer to Jesus as "God", but refers only to the Father as being the Supreme Being. Of course, from the Hebraic standpoint, even if Paul had referred to Jesus by use a form of Greek word transliterated as THEOS, this would not necessarily have meant that we would need to imagine that Paul had meant that Jesus is the Supreme Being, and then to imagine that Paul meant that Jesus is a person of the Supreme Being.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=19
John 10:30 does not present God as being more than one person, but Jesus declares his unity with his Father, whom he said was "the only true God" (John 17:1,3), and he later prayed that all of his followers would have this same unity with himself and with the only true God. -- John 17:1,3,11,20-23.
jesus-rlbible.com/?page_id=5322
In Jesus' words recorded in Matthew 4:7, Jesus quotes the Law in answer to Satan. In doing so, Jesus was not saying that he -- Jesus -- was Jehovah, and that Satan was under the Law Covenant, and thus that Satan should not tempt Jehovah. Jesus wasnot declaring himself to Satan's God. Jesus was not referring to himself as being Jehovah in Matthew 4:7, but rather he was saying that he -- Jesus -- was not to tempt Jehovah, his God. -- Micah 5:4.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=495
Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23 designates a titular name given to the Messiah, Immanuel, which means "God is with us." Such a name does not designate the bearer as being "God", but it does indicate that, as prophesied, through the Messiah, God is with His people. We find nothing in this name, however, that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person.
jesus-rlbible.com/?page_id=4866
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=2827
In Hebrews 1:8, if the Greek word transliterated as THEOS is applied to Jesus (not all translators rendered to that way), it would not be in the sense of being the Supreme Being, the source of all might, power, but rather in the sense of mighty one, similar to the way that the angels are mighty ones. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) Jesus, however, is distinguished from the Supreme Being throughout Hebrews chapter 1; indeed, the next verse (Hebrews 1:9) shows that Jesus is not the Supreme Being, for the Supreme Being does not have another Supreme Being which is greater than the Supreme Being. The default reasoning should be that Jesus is not the Supreme Being.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=367
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=1895
Jehovah's Holy Spirit (Isaiah 61:1) is represented in many different ways and fulfills many different functions. God’s holy spirit is likened to God’s finger (as the power of God). (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) As the instrument of the revealing of truth, the holy spirit is likened to God’s “mouth”. (Deuteronomy 8:3; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) Are we to think of God’s finger or his mouth as a separate and distinct person of God (using trinitarian terminology)? Is your finger, or your mouth, a separate and distinct person of yourself?
In Acts 5:3,4, God's Holy Spirit is not presented as being God, but is contrasted with "men", for it was to "men" that Ananias directly lied. At any rate, God's Holy Spirit is integral to God just as your finger or your mouth is integral to you. If your mouth speaks, it is actually you that speaks; if your finger performs some work, it is actually you that has performed the work.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=952
John 14:26 and John 15:26 refer to the Holy Spirit in the masculine, since the Greek word for Comforter (some translations render it as Counselor, or Helper) is masculine. Nevertheless, as shown in Acts 2:33, Jesus receives the Holy Spirit from his Father (the only true God -- John 17:1,3).
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=980
In Deuteronomy 33:27, not all translations render the Hebrew word transliterated as qedem (Strong's #6924) as "eternal"; some render it as is "of old" or something similar. Obviously, however, the only true God (John 17:1,3) has existed from eternity past.
In Micah 5:2, many translations make it appear to be saying that the promised Messiah has existed for all eternity past. However, as best as I can determine, Micah 5:2 is ONLY place that any translation renders the Hebrew phrase in question as "from everlasting". Micah 5:2 is only place I know of that this phrase is rendered in any translation with some form of "everlasting". Indeed, the same phase occurs again in Micah 7:14, but, as far as I can determine, no translator would think of rendering it a "from everlasting". Indeed, no translation that I know of renders this same phrase as "from everlasting" in Psalm 77:5; Isaiah 51:9; 63:9,11; or Amos 9:11. And yet many translators make an exception of Micah 5:2. Why? Could it be that they do so because of their belief that Jesus was uncreated, and that he always existed? Indeed, this would seem to be reason. This, would, in effect, mean circular reasoning is applied when using Micah 5:2, as it reads in some translations, in an effort to prove that Jesus was "from everlasting". However, in context (Micah 5:4), the promised Messiah shown to not be Jehovah, but Jehovah is presented as being the God of the Messiah.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=923
Hebrews 9:14 speaks of the eternal spirit; of course, God's Holy Spirit is just as eternal as God himself is.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=1441
Jeremiah 10:10-12 does not say anything about a triune God, but it does show that Jehovah, the only true God [Supreme Being], the God and Father of Jesus, is distinct from the idol gods of the nations.
What is lacking in all these scriptures is any thought of a triune God. The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is always presented as one person or individual. He is never presented as being a more than one person.
Also posted at:
hhttps://rl-defending.blogspot.com/2017/05/3gods.html
On this site you are able to print the above. Also you are table to translate it into many other languages.
