Micah 5:2 - Proof that Jesus has always existed?

But you, O Bethlehem of Ephrathah, who are one of the little clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to rule in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days. — New Revised Standard Version.

Why do many translations single out Micah 5:2 so as to render the Hebrew phrase as "everlasting" or "days of eternity"? We have found no other instance in the OT where this phrase is ever rendered any translation with any thought of eternity; thus, those translations that render it with some thought of eternity in Micah 5:2 evidently do so with the preconcieved notion that the Messiah has always existed, etc. Therefore, the offer of Micah 5:2 as proof that Jesus has always existed is circular, in effect, saying, because we believe that Jesus has always existed, we therefore wish this to be the meaning in Micah 5:2, and thus, this is circular reasoning is offered as proof that Jesus has always existed. Nevertheless, throughout the OT, I have found no other instance where the Hebrew phrase is ever translated with any thought of eternity.

In Micah 7:14, for instance, we find the same phrase in the Hebrew, but I have not found one translation that renders the phrase in that verse with any thought of eternity.

See my study at:
jesus.rlbible.com/?p=923