Post by ResLight on Jan 18, 2013 15:09:43 GMT -5
John 3:13 is sometimes cited as evidence that Jesus is omnipresent, that he is everywhere at the same time, and thus that he is God Almighty.
No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man. — John 3:13, New American Standard.
No one has ascended into heaven except the One who descended from heaven-the Son of Man. — John 3:13, Holman Christian Standard.
No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven–the Son of Man. — John 3:13, New International Version.
And, no one, hath ascended into heaven, save he that, out of heaven, descended, – The Son of Man. — Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible.
The claim is made that we don't get the point that Jesus was speaking of his omnipresence.
Actually, it is the insistence that Jesus is omnipresent that leads some to imagine that Jesus was saying something that he did not say in John 3:13.
The claim is made that the expression, "no one has ascended into heaven" refers to the future.
The phrase “no one has ascended to heaven” is definitely speaking of the past, not the future. Jesus was not saying that no one was to ascend into heaven at any time in the future; what would be the point of his stating such? Indeed, what he was saying is that no one — no human being — had ever (in the past, not the future) ascended into heaven (in order to tell of heavenly things — John 3:12), but, rather, that there is one who came down from heaven, who can tell of heavenly things because he had been with the Father in heaven (John 17:1,3,5), and that this one who descended to tell us of these heavenly things is the Son of the Man, David.
Even most trinitarian scholars acknowledge that Jesus was speaking of the past, when he stated, “no one has ascended to heaven”.
Robertson thus stated:
There is no allusion to the Ascension which came later.
www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/robertsons-word-pictures/john/john-3-13.html
Adam Clarke stated:
Our Lord probably spoke to correct a false notion among the Jews, viz. that Moses had ascended to heaven, in order to get the law. It is not Moses who is to be heard now, but Jesus: Moses did not ascend to heaven; but the Son of man is come down from heaven to reveal the Divine will.
www.studylight.org/com/acc/view.cgi?bk=42&ch=3
It is claimed that the phrase "who is heaven" is speaking of the present.
The phrase “which is in heaven” added to John 3:13 in many manuscripts and translations is evidently spurious. Many translations do not add that phrase, as seen in the translations given above. However, some think that John added his phrase parenthetically, not as the words of Jesus, but as his own words, to show that at the time John wrote this, Jesus was in heaven. Others believe that since the earlier manuscripts do not have the phrase, a later copyist added it to be understood parenthetically, to denote that Jesus was in heaven, not at the time Jesus spoke his words, but at the time that the copyist added the phrase.
There is no need, however, to use the spirit of human imagination so as to create the idea that Jesus was in two places at once, and then to further imagine that Jesus possesses two “natures” (planes of existence? planes of sentiency?) at the same time, and then further to read into the scripture that Jesus is present absolutely everywhere in the whole universe.
Of course, now that God has exalted Jesus with a bodily glory far above all dominions, surely God has given to Jesus the ability to be present in many places at the same time. The bodily glory that Jesus now has, however, does not include that of being the only Most High. -- 1 Corinthians 15:27; Ephesians 1:3; Philippians 2:9-11; Colossians 2:9,10.
See also my study:
John 3:13 and Jesus' Supposed Omnipresence
No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man. — John 3:13, New American Standard.
No one has ascended into heaven except the One who descended from heaven-the Son of Man. — John 3:13, Holman Christian Standard.
No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven–the Son of Man. — John 3:13, New International Version.
And, no one, hath ascended into heaven, save he that, out of heaven, descended, – The Son of Man. — Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible.
The claim is made that we don't get the point that Jesus was speaking of his omnipresence.
Actually, it is the insistence that Jesus is omnipresent that leads some to imagine that Jesus was saying something that he did not say in John 3:13.
The claim is made that the expression, "no one has ascended into heaven" refers to the future.
The phrase “no one has ascended to heaven” is definitely speaking of the past, not the future. Jesus was not saying that no one was to ascend into heaven at any time in the future; what would be the point of his stating such? Indeed, what he was saying is that no one — no human being — had ever (in the past, not the future) ascended into heaven (in order to tell of heavenly things — John 3:12), but, rather, that there is one who came down from heaven, who can tell of heavenly things because he had been with the Father in heaven (John 17:1,3,5), and that this one who descended to tell us of these heavenly things is the Son of the Man, David.
Even most trinitarian scholars acknowledge that Jesus was speaking of the past, when he stated, “no one has ascended to heaven”.
Robertson thus stated:
There is no allusion to the Ascension which came later.
www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/robertsons-word-pictures/john/john-3-13.html
Adam Clarke stated:
Our Lord probably spoke to correct a false notion among the Jews, viz. that Moses had ascended to heaven, in order to get the law. It is not Moses who is to be heard now, but Jesus: Moses did not ascend to heaven; but the Son of man is come down from heaven to reveal the Divine will.
www.studylight.org/com/acc/view.cgi?bk=42&ch=3
It is claimed that the phrase "who is heaven" is speaking of the present.
The phrase “which is in heaven” added to John 3:13 in many manuscripts and translations is evidently spurious. Many translations do not add that phrase, as seen in the translations given above. However, some think that John added his phrase parenthetically, not as the words of Jesus, but as his own words, to show that at the time John wrote this, Jesus was in heaven. Others believe that since the earlier manuscripts do not have the phrase, a later copyist added it to be understood parenthetically, to denote that Jesus was in heaven, not at the time Jesus spoke his words, but at the time that the copyist added the phrase.
There is no need, however, to use the spirit of human imagination so as to create the idea that Jesus was in two places at once, and then to further imagine that Jesus possesses two “natures” (planes of existence? planes of sentiency?) at the same time, and then further to read into the scripture that Jesus is present absolutely everywhere in the whole universe.
Of course, now that God has exalted Jesus with a bodily glory far above all dominions, surely God has given to Jesus the ability to be present in many places at the same time. The bodily glory that Jesus now has, however, does not include that of being the only Most High. -- 1 Corinthians 15:27; Ephesians 1:3; Philippians 2:9-11; Colossians 2:9,10.
See also my study:
John 3:13 and Jesus' Supposed Omnipresence
