Some responses I have made in Facebook regarding John 1:1:
The simple, historic, and default Biblical reasoning regarding John 1:1 is that the Logos is not the only true God (John 17:1,3) whom he was with (John 17:5); thus, in historic Hebraic usage, the word THEOS would apply to one who is not the only true God with the basic meaning of might, power, strength. As the KJV renders EL in Psalm 29:1; 82:1; 89:6 as "mighty", so also its corresponding word as applied to one who is not the only true God in John 1:1 should be understood as "mighty": the Logos was mighty, or the Logos was a mighty one.
I, myself, prefer the rendering of "the Logos was mighty"; forms the word often transliterated as THEOS corresponds with forms of the Hebrew word that is often transliterated as EL. The basic Hebraic meaning is that of might, strength, power, and all translations I know do at times render forms of EL as might, mighty, power, etc.
While I believe that the internal evidence indicates that John was written in Koine Greek, forms of the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS or QEOS are based on forms of the Hebrew word often transliterated as EL. This can be seen from John 10:34,35 which cites Psalm 82:6.
John twice states that the Word was with God, thus giving emphasis to the fact that he was not apply THEOS the Logos in the same manner as he applied to TON THEON whom the LOGOS was with in the beginning. The thought of two persons as the only true God is not inherent in the words of John 1:1,2, but the idea has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what John wrote. One has to imagine and assume that John, in referring to “God” whom the Word was with, does not mean the alleged triune “God”, but that it means the first person of the alleged trinity as the Father. We know it is true that “God” whom the Word was with, or in service of, is the God and Father of Jesus, because of Jesus’ words as recorded in John 17:1,3,5. However, the part about the Father being a person of a trinity has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, what John wrote in John 1:1,2, and Jesus’ reference to the Father as the “only true God” in John 17:3 has to either be ignored, or in some manner be interpreted (again this is often done by imaginative assumptions being added to and read into what Jesus stated) in order make Jesus’ words still mean that Jesus is a person of the only true God. Likewise, the trinitarian has to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what John said that the Word is the alleged second person of the trinity.
It should therefore be obvious that John is not referring to Jesus as “God” in the same manner in which he speaks of “God” whom Jesus was with. In other words, it should be obvious that Jesus is not “God” whom he was with, and as mentioned before, John emphasized this by repeating it again in John 1:2. If Jesus is “God” who he was with, or in service of, then Jesus is the Father, since Jesus says that he with his Father, but trinitarians deny that Jesus is the Father.
The Greek word for God is usually transliterated as THEOS, and forms of this word are used twice in John 1:1. Forms of THEOS, in the New Testament, are used to translate forms of the Hebrew word that is often transliterated as EL; it should be apparent that the Hebrew writers of the New Testament were using THEOS in the same manner, and with same meaning, as the Hebrew writers of the Old Testament. In the words recorded at John 10:34,35, was Jesus saying that all the sons of the Most High are persons of the Most High, that they are all the only true God?
What many do not realize is that there is a scriptural Hebraic tradition that allows the usage of the words for “God” in a more general sense of might, power, authority, etc. Most translations of the Bible into English as well as other languages recognize this usage. We can use the most popular English translation — the King James Version — to illustrate such usage. This can be demonstrated in such verses where the KJV renders the word for “God” (forms of EL and ELOHIM in the Hebrew) so as to denote strength, power, might, rulership, etc., such as in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). If one were to substitute “false god” or "only true God" in many of these verses, we would have some absurd statements. This proves that these words are used in a sense other than the only true God, or as “false god.”
Indeed, since it is absolutely clear that John was not saying that Jesus is God whom he was with, the only reason for making an exception to the general application of might to the Logos in John 1:1 is due to the preconcieved notion that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. In effect, to deny the general application to the Logos in John 1:1 is circular reasoning, that is to say, because we believe that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, we will not apply the general application of might to the Logos in John 1:1, and therefore we insist that because of what we believe, that John was saying in John 1:1 that that Logos was the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
If the Logos is "God's thought in fulness", then "God" in that expression would only be one person, and since the Logos would be, in effect, that one person, then it would mean that the Logos is the Father, the only true God, whom Jesus stated he was with. -- John 17:1,3,5.
If one should view "God's thought in fulness" to refer to the alleged second person of the trinity, then "God" in the expression would have to refer to the alleged first person of the trinity, while the "thought" would have to refer to alleged second person of the trinity. If so, then the glory that Jesus had with the only true God before he became flesh would be that of being "God's thought in fulness", and Jesus was, in John 17:1,3,5, praying to again have the glory of being "God's thought in fulness". It would mean that the "where" that Jesus expected to return to would be in "God's though in fulness". -- John 6:62.
Ancient kings addressing their people sat behind a lattice, in front of which stood a representative who uttered the king's message to the people. Such representative was called the Logos -- the king's word, or mouthpiece. The illustration is forceful, beautiful, when applied to God's Only Begotten Son, through whom the unipersonal God speaks to both angels and humanity. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 7:16,28,29; 8:28,38.40; 12:49; 14:10,24; 15:15; 17:8,14; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 2 Corinthians 5:19; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1-5; 19:13.
Jesus did not come and perform work in his own name; he comes (at both appearings) and performs the work of his God and Father, and in the name of, and to the glory of, the unipersonal God (of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) who sent Jesus. -- Exodus 3:14,15; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 118:26; 45:7; Isaiah 9:7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1; Jeremiah 23:5; Matthew 21:9; 12:28; 23:39; 28:18; Mark 11:9; Luke 1:32,35; 4:18; 5:17,19,27,30; 10:36-38; 13:35; 19:38; John 3:34; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,38,43; 6:57; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:13,49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:1,3,8,16,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; 10:38; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 15:27; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:1,2,4,6,9; 10:7; 1 Peter 3:22; Revelation 1:1.
If John had been written in Hebrew (which I do NOT believe it was), then the word used for “God” would be a form of the Hebrew word often transliterated as “EL” (Strong’s #s 410, 430, 433) which would make it even more clearer that John was not saying that “the Word was” [past tense] the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but rather that the Word was with the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, which John, for emphasis, stated twice. The very fact that he stated twice that the Word was with the God shows that John was not at all stating that the Word was God whom the Word was with.
As I have demonstrated before, forms of the Hebrew word transliterated as EL are translated into the NT with forms of the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS or QEOS. The basic meaning of the Hebrew word for God means “mighty, strength, power.” As applied to one who is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in John 1:1, it would mean “the Word was mighty” (if viewed as being used qualitatively), or “the Word was a mighty one” (if viewed as being used quantitavely). Either way, it is the same result. Please note how the KJV renders forms of the Hebrew word for God in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). If one were to substitute “false god” or “true God” in many of these verses, we would have some absurd statements. This proves that these word is being used in a sense other than the only true God, or as “false god.”
Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of Jesus, is the ONLY source of all power, strength, might, and thus He is the only true MIGHT in the universe (John 17:1,3; 1 Corinthians 8:6); any might, strength, power, that exists in the universe comes from Yahweh, even that might and power that God is now allowing to be used against Him. There is indeed no might that exists that is aside from the Source of all Might. – Isaiah 44:6.
Not only was Jesus dead while his soul was in the oblivious condition of sheol/hades (Ecclesiastes 9:10; Acts 2:31), Jesus could not save himself from his own dead condition, as can be seen by the words of Hebrews 5:7:
"Who in the days of his flesh, having offered up prayers and petitions with strong crying and tears to him who was able to save him from death, and having been heard for his godly fear."
This also shows that Jesus, having been raised from the dead, was, at the time that the above words were written, no longer "in the days of his flesh".
Assuming that Jesus, before he became flesh, was the archangel. Jesus gave up his former glory when he became flesh, which would have included his having the glory of the archangel, chief of the angels.
We know that Jesus did not have his former celestial bodily glory while he was in the days of his flesh. (John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40) Nevertheless, as the archangel, although the archangel was not under any condemnation of death, as was man through Adam, neither do the scritures state that the archangel possessed immortality; therefore the archangel was mortal. However, the Bible does not say that when Jesus became flesh, that his former glory died, although he did give up that former glory.
Jesus did not, therefore, possess immortality until after his God raised him from the dead.
The Bible no where states that God made the entire universe, itself, by means of his firstborn creature. If one considers "universe" to mean absolutely everything that exists, God has always existed, and thus, in this sense, the universe, and the heavens in which God dwells, have always existed.
If one restricts the meaning of universe to created universe, evidently the material universe itself was created before the firstborn creature, since we read that Yahweh was alone at the creation of the material universe. -- Isaiah 44:24.
Thus, the "all" that was created by means of Jesus in Colossians 1:16 is related to living creatures, dominions, visible and invisible, in heaven and one earth, etc., and not to the material universe itself.
Creation, in the Bible, is usually referring to the creation of the world of mankind; Colossians 1:16 is an exception, since "ta panta" -- the all -- referred to includes more than the visible world of mankind.
Nevertheless, "all creation" in Romans 8:22 is limited to mankind; it does not include the angels. Likewise, iIn John 1:3, the world that was made through Jesus, of which no one was made without him, is speaking of the world of mankind, which does not include the spirit world of the angels. -- John 1:10; 17:5; Romans 5:12.
Although he did not have the name “Jesus” before he became flesh, nevertheless, he was Jesus, the Son of the unipersonal living God; he was the one whom God sent into the world, before God sent him into the world that was made through him. – John 1:3,10; 10:36; 1 John 4:9. *** Yes; nevertheless, he did not have the same glory that he had when he was with his God before the world of mankind was made through him. – John 1:1-3,10; John 17:1,3,5.
In John 1:1,2, the one who bears the name, “The Word of God” (Revelation 19:13), is definitely excluded from being “God” whom he was with (John 1:1,2), in the very fact that he is said (twice) to have been with “God”
Who was the Logos with? Jesus tells us that he had been with “the only true God” before the world of mankind had been made through him. (John 1:10; 17:3,5) Thus, the word transliterated as THEOS (GOD), as applied to the one bearing the name LOGOS of God, certainly does not mean that he was “God” whom he was, nor does it mean having the qualities exclusive to “the only true God”, for John twice emphasized that the LOGOS was with “God”.
Keeping the matter in the realm of the scriptures, comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing, rather than calling upon human imagination so as to imagine and assume something beyond what is written, we should note forms of the word THEOS corresponds to forms of the Hebrew word EL. The basic meaning of EL is “might, strength, power”. It is not confined to being used of Yahweh (Jehovah) the only true God, nor even additionally to false gods, but it is also used of men, angels, and even things. When forms of the world EL are used in the Old Testament for others than Yahweh or a false deity, most translators will often render it into English not as “God, but with some form of “might”, “strength”, “power”, etc. Sometimes, translators will render it, even as applied to others than Yahweh, as “God”, or “as God”, or “gods” or “a god”, etc., even though it is not being applied to either Yahweh or false gods.
In Psalm 82:1, for instance, the KJV renders it, not as “God” or “god”, but as “mighty”, recognizing this to be referring collectively to the “gods” of Psalm 82:6; it is Yahweh who there refers to them as “gods”, and as “sons of the Most High”, although He chides them for not living up to their calling as “sons”. Jesus refers to Psalm 82:6 and, in John 10:34-36, the Hebrew plural form used in Psalm 82:6 is translated as THEOI, a plural form of THEOS. Jesus used this to illustrate that these sons of the Most High to whom the LOGOS of God came (John 1:11,12) were said to be “gods”, and thus they should have no objection to his referring to himself as the “Son of God”. – John 10:34-36.
Nevertheless, in Genesis 31:29 of the KVJ, the word for GOD is not rendered either as “God” or “god”, but rather as “power”; likewise in Deuteronomy 28:32, the word for GOD is not rendered as “God” or “god”, but rather as “might”. And, as noted, the KJV renders the Hebrew word for “God” in Psalm 82:1, not as “God”, or as “a god”, but as “mighty.” The word for “God” is also rendered in the KJV as “mighty” in Psalm 29:1 as well as in Genesis 23:6; Exodus 9:28; Psalm 50:1; 89:6. In Ezekiel 31:11, the KJV renders the word for “God” as “mighty one.” In the margin of Exodus 15:11, a plural form of the word for “God” is given in the KJV as meaning, “or, the mighty ones”.
Consequently, applying this principle as recognized by the KJV translators to the one bearing the name LOGOS in John 1:1, we would have “the LOGOS was MIGHTY”, or “the LOGOS was a MIGHTY ONE.” It designates the glory that the LOGOS had before he became flesh as having been mighty, but since John twice emphasized that the LOGOS was with the only true God, it does not designate the LOGOS as having the qualities exclusive to the only true God whom he was with. Indeed, since it is evident from the context that John was not saying the Logos was “God” whom he was with, the default reasoning should be apply the general application of might to one bearing the name, the Logos, in John 1:1. See my study: www.rlbible.com/jesus/?p=2973
Whether one views the word as an adjective or a noun, it still is not saying that Jesus is the only true God whom Jesus was with.
As an adjective (which I believe is what is meant), he was “mighty” when he was with the only true God before the world of mankind was made through him. – John 1:3,10; 17:3,5.
As a noun, Jesus was “a mighty one” when he was with the only true God before the world of mankind was made through him. – John 1:3,10; 17:3,5. ***
Is not the person to whom the name – the Logos of God -- is applied distinguished from his God in the book of Revelation (Revelation 1:1-6; 3:13; 5:1,6,7; Revelation 19:13), as well as in the other writings of John? – John 3:34; 8:42; 17:1,3; 20:17; 1 John 4:9,10.
Of course, he who bears the name – the Logos of God – is distinguished from his God.
I do not bear my thoughts as a name. *** God’s thoughts are not a name that either He bears as a name, or that is given to another. *** There is no mention in the Bible of anyone bearing the name, “the Logos of Christ”. Christ’s thoughts are not a name. *** Paul, in saying that Jesus is the wisdom and power of God, is not saying that Jesus is the same person as his God; in the context, he distinguishes “God” from “Jesus” as being two different persons. – 1 Corinthians 1:3,4,9,18,21,30; 3:23; 5:14; 8:6; 11:3; 15:15,27,28,57.
It should be obvious, as always, that Paul is saying that through, or by means of, Jesus, we know God’s wisdom and God’s power. – Romans 2:16; 3:4; 1 Corinthians 1:4,30; 8:6; 2 Corinthians 1:21; 2:14; 5:18,19; Ephesians 1:3; 2:10,18; Philippians 4:7.
I can agree that the person, Jesus, is both the root and offspring of David. As the offspring of David, he is Son of the man, David. Jesus becomes the root of David in the regeneration of Israel. (Matthew 19:28) Of the Messiah, we read: “Instead of thy fathers are thy sons, Thou dost appoint them for princes in all the earth.” (Psalm 45:16, Young’s Literal) Thus, the fathers of the Messiah become the children of Messiah, making Jesus the root of David as well as all those who were the faithful of old, the fathers of the Messiah. See: The Lord of David: www.rlbible.com/jesus/?p=1521
As the Lamb of God, Jesus had Yahweh (Jehovah) as his shepherd. – Psalm 23:1. www.rlbible.com/binfo/?p=227 *** Yahweh did send His son to shepherd His people, Israel, if that is what is meant. – Ezekiel 34:23; Micah 5:2; Matthew 2:6.
The sheep of Jesus are given to him by the unipersonal God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Yahweh (Jehovah) is the Most High Shepherd; Jesus is the “genuine” (Greek, transliterated, Kalos, Strong’s #2570) shepherd appointed over the sheep by the Most High Shepherd, as opposed to the false shepherds. The Most High Shepherd Yahweh shepherds His sheep through, by means of the genuine shepherd whom he has appointed. — Psalm 23:1; 96:13; 98:9; Ezekiel 34:2-24; John 5:22,23; 10:11-17,29; Acts 10:42; 17:31; Romans 2:16; 14:10; 1 Corinthians 4:5; 2 Corinthians 5:10.
However, only a remnant of Israel proved to be sheep in this age. – John 1:11,12; Romans 11:5.
There is nothing in John 1:10 that says that Jesus became one of his own creation. John 1:10 is clear that Jesus came into the world of mankind that God made through Jesus, that is true. It does not say that he became one of his own creation; elsewhere, however, we are told that Jesus is not of this world that was made through him. – John 8:23.
If Jesus had been a part of this creation, then he would have been under the same condemnation that this world has come to be under. – Romans 5:12-19.
Additionally, he would have been under the same subjection to vanity that this creation has been subjected to, and he would be just as crooked as all other men, and he could not have justified himself. – Ecclesiastes 1:1,14,15; 7:13; Romans 3:20; 8:20; Galatians 2:16; 3:11.
If Jesus became part that creation, he would have then been under that condemnation, and he could not therefore have been an offering for sin. Jesus, therefore, did not at all become part of the creation that had been made through Jesus, but his God prepared a body for him, and he was not begotten in the womb of Mary with the taint of Adam’s disobedience. (Matthew 1:20; Hebrews 1:10) His human creation, in other words, was actually totally apart from that creation that had come into existence through him.
Jesus could not be a high priest until after he was dead; he could not be a priest as long as he was on earth. – Hebrews 8:4.
It was not until after he was raised from the dead, and had ascended into heaven, that he could serve as high priest, and as such, present the value of his sacrifice to his God in heaven. – Hebrews 8:1; 9:24.
Isaiah 44:24 refers to the creation of the material universe; Yahweh was alone at that creation, and Jesus was not there. The "beginning" in the John 1:1 relates to the beginning of the world that was made through Jesus. That "world" -- kosmos -- is the world into which sin came through one man (Romans 5:12), and it does not include the material universe, nor does it even include the spirit creatures.
Of course the Son is not the Father of whom he was with because they are two distinct persons but the Son is God by nature just like his Father.
John 1:1
New King James Version (NKJV)
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (Father), and the Word was God (Divine).
Jesus is most definitely NOT his God, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Not once in the Bible is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jaoob presented as being more than one person, and Peter identifies him as one person who is not Jesus. (Acts 3:13-26; 1 Peter 1:3) Jesus identifies his God as the only true God (John 17:1,3) and Paul identifies him as the one God of whom is the all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.
Yes, Jesus "was", before he became flesh, "divine", having a mightiness similar to that the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) While he was in the days of his flesh, he did not have the bodily celestial, spiritual, glory that "was" his when he was with the only true God, else why would he ask for it to be returned to him? -- John 1:1,2; 17:1,3,5; 1 Corinthians 15:39,40,41; Hebrews 2:9.
No where in the Bible in the Bible is Jesus ever once presented as possessing the nature of being the Most High. He is presented as being the Son of the Most High, but this does not make him the Most High of whom he is the Son. -- Luke 1:32,35.
The Bible is fully harmonious with itself without adding to the scriptures that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob; the Bible no where states such a thing.
Post by Born Again Christian on Jun 23, 2013 1:10:43 GMT -5
You always keep saying that God is only one person, yet until now you cannot show me this verse where it says that "God is only one person". In John 17:3, why would Jesus still need to pray for his disciples to know the only true God if his disciples being Jews already know that the Father is the only true God? In 1st Cor 8:6, if you are saying that the Father is the only God and the Son is the only Lord, are you saying now that the Father is not Lord anymore?
The word "God" in the bible has a lot meanings depending on the context. You have to remember that while the word is uni-vocal it is not always equivocal. The word "God" was used for angels because of their mightiness. It is true however that not everybody who was called God is God. Angels, Satan, Judges and Jesus were called God but only Jesus is God by nature and the others were not.
The Most High God is the Father because he has the greatest authority out of the three.
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (Father), and the Word was God (Divine).
Yes, Jesus was divine, a divine being, similar to the angels. The angels, having a bodily glory that is higher than that of man, are also referred to as GOD -- MIGHTY -- HA ELOHIM, The Mighty Ones. -- Psalm 8:4,5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-43; Hebrews 2:6-8.
YES, THE SON IS GOD BY NATURE; HE IS ALMIGHTY, OMNISCIENT, OMNIPRESENT, ETERNAL AND HOLY BY NATURE.
The son is indeed GOD -- MIGHTY -- by nature, but he is not the Almighty, nor omniscient, nor omnipresent. Having been raised from the dead and will never die again, he is indeed eternal.