1 Corinthians 8:6 - One Lord, One God Video

This is false; only the Father is one God who is the source of all; only the Son is the one Lord through whom are all.



1 Corinthians 8:5 For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords,
1 Corinthian 8:6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him. -- New American Standard.

Paul contrasts both the false idol-gods as well as the other many gods and many lords with the ONE GOD and the ONE LORD of whom he speaks and then distinguishes the "one God" of whom are the all from the one Lord through whom are the all.



As written, this would seem to mean that the Son is the one God who performs his work through the Father as the one lord.

Since not one scripture ever presents such an idea, such an idea is not all "clear in the scriptures"; indeed, to find such an idea anywhere in the Bible, one does have to call upon the spirit of human imagination so as to create a lot of assumptions with added reasons to be selective in applications, etc., and then all this has to be added to, and read into, the scriptures.



The only true God (John 17:1,3) is indeed also "Lord"; He is the Supreme Lord; Jesus, however, is not the Supreme Lord. -- Isaiah 61:1.



I have no reason scriptural reason to add such reasoning to what God has give us in the Bible.



"And", both in John 17:3, and in 1 Corinthians 8:6, distinguishes Jesus from "the only true God" and the "one God".

If "and" should be thought to mean "even" or "who is", then you end up having: "yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him, even one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him. -- New American Standard.

This would make the Jesus to be the one God, the Father; most trinitarians would not claim such. However, the wording itself shows that Paul is speaking of two different persons, not one person, and the role of both of these two persons are not the same.

See:
John 17:3 – Did Jesus Really Say That the Father is the only true God?



Romans 11:32 For God has shut up all to disobedience, that he might have mercy on all.
Romans 11:33 Oh the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and the knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past tracing out!
Romans 11:34 "For who has known the mind of [Yahweh]? Or who has been his counselor?" (Isaiah 40:13)
Romans 11:35 "Or who has first given to him, And it will be repaid to him again?"
Romans 11:36 For of him, and through him, and to him, are all things. To him be the glory for ever! Amen.

Romans 11:32 Westcott & Hort text
sunekleisen gar ho theos tous pantas eis
SHUT UP TOGETHER FOR THE GOD THE ALL INTO
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apeithian hina tous pantas eleeesee
DISOBEDIENCE IN ORDER THAT THE (ONES) ALL HE MIGHT SHOW MERCY TO.
0543 2443 3588 3956 1653
Romans 11:33
w bathos ploutou kai sophias kai gnwsews
O DEPTH OF RICHES AND OF WISDOM AND OF KNOWLEDGE
5599 0899 4149 2532 4678 2532 1108
theou hws anexerauneeta ta krimata autou kai
OF GOD; AS UNSEARCHABLE THE JUDGMENTS OF HIM AND
2316 5613 0419 3588 2917 0846_3 2532
anexichniastoi hai hodoi autou
UNTRACEABLE THE WAYS OF HIM.
0421 3588 3598 0846_3
Romans 11:34
tis gar egnw noun kuriou ee tis sumboulos autou
WHO FOR KNEW MIND OF LORD, OR WHO COUNSELOR OF HIM
5101 1063 1097 3563 2962 2228 5101 4825 0846_3
egeneto
BECAME?
1096
Romans 11:35
ee tis proedwken autw kai antapodotheesetai
OR WHO GAVE BEFORE TO HIM, AND IT WILL BE RECOMPENSED
2228 5101 4272 0846_5 2532 0467
autw
TO HIM?
0846_5
Romans 11:36
hoti ex autou kai di autou kai eis auton ta
BECAUSE OUT OF HIM AND THROUGH HIM AND INTO HIM THE
3754 1537 0846_3 2532 1223 0846_3 2532 1519 0846_7 3588
panta autw hee doxa eis tous aiwnas ameen
ALL (THINGS); TO HIM THE GLORY INTO THE AGES; AMEN.
3956 0846_5 3588 1391 1519 3588 0165 0281

Evidently, the thought is that since the all being spoken of here are "through" God, that this somehow means that "the one Lord, Jesus Christ", through whom are the all of 1 Corinthians 8:6 is also "God".

That Paul is using the word "God" in Romans 11:32-36 to speak of the Father as the unipersonal God can be seen from Romans 1:1-3,7-9; 2:16; 3:22-26; 5:1,2,8-11,15; 6:9,10,11,23; 7:25; 8:3,29,32,34,39; 10:9; 15:5-8; 16:27, all of which are harmony with the thought Paul presented in 1 Corinthians 8:6, that the Father is the only God of whom are the all, and that the Son is the one Lord through whom are the all. By saying "God" in Romans 11:32-36, therefore, we have no reason to think that he is not speaking of the same unipersonal "God" he has been writing about throughout his letter to Rome. To think otherwise would of necessity go against the default, and would call for some kind of imaginative assumptions that have to be reasoned out beyond what is written, and then those assumptions have to added to, and read into, what Paul wrote.

However, the Greek word often transliterated as "dia" can indeed be used to denote that something is "through" the originator of whatever is being spoken of. All of God's works are of Him, and through Him and in harmony with Him. This does not negate the contrast that Paul gives elsewhere in which God is the originator and His Son is the agent.

Robertson states (I could not get the Greek characters to appear correctly):



Marvin R. Vincent tells us:


These authors, of course, were both trinitarian, thus it is not suprising to see how in their work they would seek to defend the trinity dogma. The point in quoting them is to show that "dia" is usually used in the Bible to denote an secondary instrumental, intermediary, agency, but that it does not ALWAYS means such.

Thus, in keeping with the context of Romans 11:36, we have no reason to think that Paul's usage of the word "God" (verse 32) would mean that he was referring to Jesus as "God", or that there anything in these verses that would mean that Paul was saying Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Paul went on to show what this one God is none other than the God and Father of Jesus. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.

The usual usage of "GOD" as meaning "The Supreme Mighty One" [the Supreme Being] only applies to the Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus.



Here Paul refers to the idol gods, even if the idol is the actual sun, the moon and stars in heaven, the making of them to be gods is still the work of man. As 'gods', they are nothing.




Here the apostle is not repeating himself, but he gives recognition to usage of the word "god" and "lord" as they are applied to others, as for example, in Genesis Genesis 18:12; 23:6,11,15; 27:29,37; 31:35; 32:4,5,18; 36:2; Deuteronomy 10:17; Numbers 11:28; Judges 4:18; 6:13; 19:26; Ruth 2:13; 1 Samuel 1:15; 2 Samuel 2:7; 9:11; 1 Kings 1:2; 11:23; 18:7; 2 Kings 8:5; 1 Chronicles 21:23; 2 Chronicles 13:6; Ezra 10:3; ; Psalm 8:5 (Hebrews 2:7); 82:1,6; 105:23; Jeremiah 37:20; 38:9; Daniel 1:10; 12:8; Malachi 1:6; Matthew 10:24; 27:63; John 12:21; Acts 16:30; 1 Timothy 6:15; 1 Peter 3:6; Colossians 3:23; Revelation 7:14.



Proof positive that he who is the source of all is the God and Father of Jesus.

<center>Rotherham's Emphasized Bible * Englishman's Hebrew/Greek Concordance and Lexicon</center>
<center>Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary * The Interlinear Bible: Hebrew-Greek-English</center>



This would mean that Paul was indeed repeating himself.




This is contrary to what is stated.



This ignores the Biblical usage of the words lord and god.



Please stop posting this.



I don't know of any scripture where the word "DIA" is never ever once at any time used of the Almighty Father of Jesus as meaning that the Father is the agent of another; it is, however, used of Jesus as being the agent of another. I have no reason to show you a scripture that says that "all things are through the Father."

Having provided many verses that speaks of many gods, I have already done so. Your refusal to recognize such does not mean that Jesus is also the Supreme Being, or that we need imagine, assume and add to the scripture that Jesus is a person of the Supreme Being.

See my studies:
Hebraic Usage of the Titles for God
One God, One Lord

If you are admanantly demanding a verse that actually says, "Jesus and His God are two different GODS", there is no reason for such a verse to be have been written, since it is the default reasoning that Jesus is the NOT the only true Supreme Being who sent Jesus. (John 17:1,3) Of course, if your heart is set on the trinity, nothing I can present to you will convince you otherwise, except that God allow you to see what the scriptures are saying.



Again, I have provided the scriptures that show that Jesus and His God are two different LORDs; only the Lord Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus, is the Supreme Lord (Isaiah 61:1); Jesus is not the Supreme Lord.



This disregards what I have presented, and presents that an assumed statement that "God" in Romans 11:32-36 is not ony of the Father (the default reasoning as presented by Paul throughout the book of Romans) but rather one should evidently assume that "God" in Romans 11:32-36 is speaking of more than one person, a thought never once presented anywhere in the Bible.