Post by ResLight on Aug 31, 2015 21:02:50 GMT -5
Was Thomas Wrong?
One asks if Thomas was wrong when he said to Jesus, "the Lord of me and the God of me"?
The Greek structure of Thomas' exclamation is at pointed out "the lord of me and the god of me"; it has the definite article twice, whereas if only one person was intended by this, only one article would have been needed, as is demonstrated a few verses earlier (John 20:17). Thus, it is possible that Thomas first referred to Jesus as "the lord of me" and then referred to the Father as "the god of me."
Nevertheless, assuming that Thomas did refer to Jesus when he said "the god of me", it does not follow that we need to imagine and assume that Thomas meant that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and then to further imagine, assume, add to, and read into, what Thomas said that Thomas meant that Jesus was not "God" as Jesus spoke of in John 20:17, but rather imagine and assume that Jesus used the term "God" to mean only one person of "God", and then further imagine and assume that Thomas spoke of Jesus as another person of God.
In harmony with the rest of the Bible, we do not find any Biblical tradition for referring to Jesus as "the god of me" (often worded in translations as "my God") or even "the god of us" (often worded as "our God"). In harmony with the rest of the Bible, one should recognize that the Hebrews used the words for "God" not only of the Supreme Being and false gods, but in other ways to denote power, might, strength. Indeed, the basic mean of the Hebrew word often transliterated as EL is strength, might, power, etc. The King James Version can be used to demonstrate this usage in many verses in which the KJV translators rendered forms of the word for "God", not as "God" or "god", but with other words. readily seen by anyone who will carefully note the following texts from the King James Version, in which English translations of forms of the Hebrew word El are in denoted by *..*: “It is in the *power* of my hand.” (Genesis 31:29) “There shall be no *might* in thine hand.” (Deuteronomy 28:32) “Neither is it in our *power*.” (Nehemiah 5:5) “Like the *great* mountains.” (Psalm 36:6) “In the *power* of thine hand to do it.” (Proverbs 3:27) “Pray unto *a god* [mighty one] that cannot save.” (Isaiah 45:20) “Who among the sons of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 89:6) “God standeth in the congregation of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 82:1) “Give unto the Lord [Jehovah] of ye *mighty*.” (Psalm 29:1) “The *mighty* God even the Lord [Jehovah].” (Psalm 50:1) There are other scriptures also that could be used for this. All one need to do to verify the above is to look into the Englishman’s Hebrew and Chaldee Concordance, under Hebrew words #430 and #410. The point is that Thomas, if he did use the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS of Jesus, would more than likely simply making use of such a Hebraism. To render this usage into English as applied to Thomas' words would be something like, "the lord of me and the might of me", or "the lord of me and strength of me", or even "the lord of me and the mighty one of me".
Jesus commended Thomas for his belief concerning Jesus' being resurrected. As far as I know, ALL trinitarians will apply their dualism belief concerning Jesus, and will claim that Jesus who was standing before Thomas their idea of "human being" Jesus, not their alleged Jesus "the Supreme Being," but that Thomas knew of this dualism and thus called Jesus God, as meaning the Supreme Being, not the human being. Of course, I do not believe that Jesus ever was two beings at once (which in effect -- although trinitarians will deny this -- would mean that Jesus himself would be two different persons, one who had the sentiency limited to that of a human being, and another who had the sentiency unlimited -- omniscience -- of the Supreme Being).
For my more detailed study of this, see:
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=339
One asks if Thomas was wrong when he said to Jesus, "the Lord of me and the God of me"?
The Greek structure of Thomas' exclamation is at pointed out "the lord of me and the god of me"; it has the definite article twice, whereas if only one person was intended by this, only one article would have been needed, as is demonstrated a few verses earlier (John 20:17). Thus, it is possible that Thomas first referred to Jesus as "the lord of me" and then referred to the Father as "the god of me."
Nevertheless, assuming that Thomas did refer to Jesus when he said "the god of me", it does not follow that we need to imagine and assume that Thomas meant that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and then to further imagine, assume, add to, and read into, what Thomas said that Thomas meant that Jesus was not "God" as Jesus spoke of in John 20:17, but rather imagine and assume that Jesus used the term "God" to mean only one person of "God", and then further imagine and assume that Thomas spoke of Jesus as another person of God.
In harmony with the rest of the Bible, we do not find any Biblical tradition for referring to Jesus as "the god of me" (often worded in translations as "my God") or even "the god of us" (often worded as "our God"). In harmony with the rest of the Bible, one should recognize that the Hebrews used the words for "God" not only of the Supreme Being and false gods, but in other ways to denote power, might, strength. Indeed, the basic mean of the Hebrew word often transliterated as EL is strength, might, power, etc. The King James Version can be used to demonstrate this usage in many verses in which the KJV translators rendered forms of the word for "God", not as "God" or "god", but with other words. readily seen by anyone who will carefully note the following texts from the King James Version, in which English translations of forms of the Hebrew word El are in denoted by *..*: “It is in the *power* of my hand.” (Genesis 31:29) “There shall be no *might* in thine hand.” (Deuteronomy 28:32) “Neither is it in our *power*.” (Nehemiah 5:5) “Like the *great* mountains.” (Psalm 36:6) “In the *power* of thine hand to do it.” (Proverbs 3:27) “Pray unto *a god* [mighty one] that cannot save.” (Isaiah 45:20) “Who among the sons of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 89:6) “God standeth in the congregation of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 82:1) “Give unto the Lord [Jehovah] of ye *mighty*.” (Psalm 29:1) “The *mighty* God even the Lord [Jehovah].” (Psalm 50:1) There are other scriptures also that could be used for this. All one need to do to verify the above is to look into the Englishman’s Hebrew and Chaldee Concordance, under Hebrew words #430 and #410. The point is that Thomas, if he did use the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS of Jesus, would more than likely simply making use of such a Hebraism. To render this usage into English as applied to Thomas' words would be something like, "the lord of me and the might of me", or "the lord of me and strength of me", or even "the lord of me and the mighty one of me".
Jesus commended Thomas for his belief concerning Jesus' being resurrected. As far as I know, ALL trinitarians will apply their dualism belief concerning Jesus, and will claim that Jesus who was standing before Thomas their idea of "human being" Jesus, not their alleged Jesus "the Supreme Being," but that Thomas knew of this dualism and thus called Jesus God, as meaning the Supreme Being, not the human being. Of course, I do not believe that Jesus ever was two beings at once (which in effect -- although trinitarians will deny this -- would mean that Jesus himself would be two different persons, one who had the sentiency limited to that of a human being, and another who had the sentiency unlimited -- omniscience -- of the Supreme Being).
For my more detailed study of this, see:
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=339
