Post by ResLight on Jul 15, 2021 16:39:55 GMT -5
1 Corinthians 8:6 - yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we to him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through him.
One asked the question:
Does 1 Corinthians 8:6 declare one person is God and one person is lord?
By rest of what is stated the obvious purpose was to assume that is what I meant in quoting this scripture as proof that only the Father of Jesus is the "one God" of whom are all. 1 Corinthians 8:6 declares, not simply that there is one person who is God and one person who is Lord, but it declares that there is one person who is the "one God" of whom are all, and that there is one person who is the "one Lord" through whom are all. The one Lord through whom are all is not the one God of whom are all, nor is the one God of whom are all the one Lord through whom are all.
Assuming that I was saying that there is only one who could have the title of "Lord" and only one who could have the title of Lord, the person then states:
"God the Father is called lord.
***
Jesus Christ is called lord."
Each statement is followed with scriptures in which it is claime that both are called "Lord." I replied:
And Abraham is "lord" -- Genesis 18:12; 22:6; 24:9,10,12, etc.
Esau is called "lord" -- Genesis 32:3,18; 33:8.
Joseph is called "lord" -- Genesis 42:10
King Agrippa is called "lord" -- Acts 25:26
In fact, many people throughout the Bible are given the title of "lord." This agrees with Paul's statement that there are "many lords." -- 1 Corinthians 8:5.
Nevertheless, none of these other lords are the one whom Jehovah has made the "one Lord" through whom are all.
Similarly, it was stated that:
"God the Father is called God
***
Jesus Christ is called God"
Again with a list of scriptures thought to show that God is applied to both Jesus and his Father.
One should note that the Hebrew and Greek words for "god" are applied to Moses (Exodus 7:1), the angels (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7 - also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); the sons of the Most High (Psalm 82:6; John 1:12; 10:34-36); the king or kings referred to in Ezekiel 32:21; the judges of Israel (Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28 (See Acts 23:5); the wicked spirit that impersonated Samuel (1 Samuel 28:130; the "power" in Laban's hand (Genesis 31:29); in your hand (Proverbs 3:27); and more. And yet, none of these other applications of the words for "god" are being used as the "one God" of whom are all.
I have a study related to the usage of the Hebrew/Greek words for "god" at:
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/09/hebraicusage.html
For my study related to 1 Corinthians 8:6:
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/09/1-corinthians-86.html
One asked the question:
Does 1 Corinthians 8:6 declare one person is God and one person is lord?
By rest of what is stated the obvious purpose was to assume that is what I meant in quoting this scripture as proof that only the Father of Jesus is the "one God" of whom are all. 1 Corinthians 8:6 declares, not simply that there is one person who is God and one person who is Lord, but it declares that there is one person who is the "one God" of whom are all, and that there is one person who is the "one Lord" through whom are all. The one Lord through whom are all is not the one God of whom are all, nor is the one God of whom are all the one Lord through whom are all.
Assuming that I was saying that there is only one who could have the title of "Lord" and only one who could have the title of Lord, the person then states:
"God the Father is called lord.
***
Jesus Christ is called lord."
Each statement is followed with scriptures in which it is claime that both are called "Lord." I replied:
And Abraham is "lord" -- Genesis 18:12; 22:6; 24:9,10,12, etc.
Esau is called "lord" -- Genesis 32:3,18; 33:8.
Joseph is called "lord" -- Genesis 42:10
King Agrippa is called "lord" -- Acts 25:26
In fact, many people throughout the Bible are given the title of "lord." This agrees with Paul's statement that there are "many lords." -- 1 Corinthians 8:5.
Nevertheless, none of these other lords are the one whom Jehovah has made the "one Lord" through whom are all.
Similarly, it was stated that:
"God the Father is called God
***
Jesus Christ is called God"
Again with a list of scriptures thought to show that God is applied to both Jesus and his Father.
One should note that the Hebrew and Greek words for "god" are applied to Moses (Exodus 7:1), the angels (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7 - also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); the sons of the Most High (Psalm 82:6; John 1:12; 10:34-36); the king or kings referred to in Ezekiel 32:21; the judges of Israel (Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28 (See Acts 23:5); the wicked spirit that impersonated Samuel (1 Samuel 28:130; the "power" in Laban's hand (Genesis 31:29); in your hand (Proverbs 3:27); and more. And yet, none of these other applications of the words for "god" are being used as the "one God" of whom are all.
I have a study related to the usage of the Hebrew/Greek words for "god" at:
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/09/hebraicusage.html
For my study related to 1 Corinthians 8:6:
jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/09/1-corinthians-86.html
