Post by ResLight on Mar 14, 2016 11:56:48 GMT -5
Matthew 28:18 - Did Jesus Speak As God the Son?
I have also posted this at:
notrinity.blogspot.com/2016/03/mat-28-18-speaking.html
(Click the link above to translate to other languages, or to print this short study.
One makes the claim that when Jesus spoke at times it was GOD speaking and at times the Flesh speaking, evidently applying the alleged "dual natures" philosophy. Jesus' words spoken in Matthew 28:18 is given as evidence of this, since Jesus stated that all power in heaven and earth had been given to him. The question is raised to how this could be, and the answer is supplied that this was God (incarnated in Jesus) who was speaking.
Jesus came to them and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth. – (Matthew 28:18)
I will first note that some translations put “power” here instead of “authority”; the correct rendering, however, is “authority”.
It should be evident that "all authority" that is given to Jesus has been given to him from someone else. Other scriptures show that Jesus receives this authority from the "one God" that Paul wrote about, He who is the source of all. (1 Corinthians 8:6; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2;Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38;Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.) Rather than offering any evidence that it was the alleged "God Jesus" who spoke these words, the truth is that what Jesus stated shows that he was NOT speaking as the Most High, since the Most High, being the source of all power and authority (1 Corinthians 8:6), has no need to be given any authority from someone else.
What Jesus stated as recorded in Matthew 28:18 is in harmony with 1 Corinthians 8:6, as well as Ephesians 1:3, 17-23, where we find that the God and Father of Jesus subjected the all to Jesus, but as Paul stated in 1 Corinthians 15:27, it is evident that He who subjected the all to Jesus is excepted.
Since the Bible is fully at harmony with itself without imagining, adding, and reading the assumption of "dual natures" of Jesus into the scriptures, I have no scriptural reason to add the assumption to any scripture.
See my study related to the “all power” that the only true God has given to Jesus.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=175
I have also posted this at:
notrinity.blogspot.com/2016/03/mat-28-18-speaking.html
(Click the link above to translate to other languages, or to print this short study.
One makes the claim that when Jesus spoke at times it was GOD speaking and at times the Flesh speaking, evidently applying the alleged "dual natures" philosophy. Jesus' words spoken in Matthew 28:18 is given as evidence of this, since Jesus stated that all power in heaven and earth had been given to him. The question is raised to how this could be, and the answer is supplied that this was God (incarnated in Jesus) who was speaking.
Jesus came to them and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth. – (Matthew 28:18)
I will first note that some translations put “power” here instead of “authority”; the correct rendering, however, is “authority”.
It should be evident that "all authority" that is given to Jesus has been given to him from someone else. Other scriptures show that Jesus receives this authority from the "one God" that Paul wrote about, He who is the source of all. (1 Corinthians 8:6; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2;Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38;Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.) Rather than offering any evidence that it was the alleged "God Jesus" who spoke these words, the truth is that what Jesus stated shows that he was NOT speaking as the Most High, since the Most High, being the source of all power and authority (1 Corinthians 8:6), has no need to be given any authority from someone else.
What Jesus stated as recorded in Matthew 28:18 is in harmony with 1 Corinthians 8:6, as well as Ephesians 1:3, 17-23, where we find that the God and Father of Jesus subjected the all to Jesus, but as Paul stated in 1 Corinthians 15:27, it is evident that He who subjected the all to Jesus is excepted.
Since the Bible is fully at harmony with itself without imagining, adding, and reading the assumption of "dual natures" of Jesus into the scriptures, I have no scriptural reason to add the assumption to any scripture.
See my study related to the “all power” that the only true God has given to Jesus.
jesus-rlbible.com/?p=175
